Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why do nice guys rarely or never win?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

California schools are very liberal. Do you think California schools are teaching students to hate Republican views (views on: God, guns, prayer, secure borders, etc.)?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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